Lies of the Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers

Let's look at some facts, rather than the lies we find everywhere in Judeo-Zionist-Christendom shall we?

1. The word "jew" was not even in the Hebrew or Greek - languages used to compose the Old and New Testaments, so how could either Jesus or Paul be a jew? when 'jew" didn't exist?

2. Yahshua was of the tribe of Judah. (Luke 3:33) It's now up to Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers to show us the evidence, not just repeat their BS over and over again, that Jesus was a "jew."

3. Paul clearly states he was born of the tribe of Benjamin, (Phil. 3:8) not Judah. So again, the Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers have the burden of proof to show us that descendants of Benjamin were "jews."

4. James wrote his epistle to the 12 tribes in the dispersion. The "lost" tribes.

1James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting. KJV

1 James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ,

To the twelve tribes scattered among the nations: NIV

James wrote his epistle to Israelites scattered among the Greek nations, (see below) not to fellow "jews."

5. Paul, through Luke, authored the book of Hebrews. Hebrews were the 12 tribes of Israel, the Israelites, not "Gentiles."

Christendumbers like others to believe "Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles." Why don't the Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers show us the book written specifically to the non-jews or who they like us to believe are the "Gentiles?"

6. Here is a perfect example from John 7 of how the deception keeps getting perpetrated:

32 The Pharisees heard the crowd whispering such things about him. Then the chief priests and the Pharisees sent temple guards to arrest him.

33 Jesus said, “I am with you for only a short time, and then I am going to the one who sent me. 34 You will look for me, but you will not find me; and where I am, you cannot come.”

35 The Jews (sic - Judaeans) said to one another, “Where does this man intend to go that we cannot find him? Will he go where our people (Judeans) live scattered among the Greeks, and teach the Greeks?

Let's examine the orginal language from Blue Letter Bible

Then 3767 said 2036 the Jews 2453 among 4314 themselves 1438, Whither 4226 will 3195 he 3778 go 4198 , that 3754 we 2249 shall 2147 0 not 3756 find 2147 him 846? will 3361 3195 he go 4198 unto 1519 the dispersed 1290 among the Gentiles 1672, and 2532 teach 1321 the Gentiles 1672?

the Jews 2453
G2453 - Ioudaios
Ἰουδαῖος
From Ἰούδα (G2448) (in the sense of Ἰούδας (G2455) as a country)

G2455 G2448 - Iouda
Ἰούδα
Judah = "he shall be praised"

1) the fourth son of the patriarch Jacob
2) the tribe that were the offspring of Judah
3) the region occupied by the tribe
4) a city of the tribe of Judah, conjectured to be Hebron, which was a city assigned to the priests and located in the hill country, and the native place of John the Baptist according to Jewish tradition

Nothing in the definition of G2448 Iouda from which G2453 Ioudaios is derived about "jews."

So, tell us, Christendumbers, how do we get jews from Judah? Not everyone who resided in Judah, was a "jew" just like not everyone who lives in (the United States of) America is German, or Italian or Roman Catholic. Saying that all the people who resided in Judah at this time period was jewish, is like saying everyone who lives in California is Roman Catholic.

Ioudaios should be translated Judaeans, not jews. Been over this a thousand times; just like American.

among the Gentiles 1672
G1672 - Hellēn
Ἕλλην

1) a Greek either by nationality, whether a native of the main land or of the Greek islands or colonies

the dispersed 1290
G1290 - diaspora
διασπορά
1) a scattering, dispersion
a) of Israelites dispersed among foreign nations

The Judaeans knew there were Israelites dispersed among the Greek nations surrounding their "world," their Society, at that time.

Notice the Judaeans didn't think that Yahshua (Jesus) would go preaching to the dispersed "jews" among the Greeks (Hellen)

No where in Scripture does it say that "Gentiles" are to be preached to, because no where in Scripture is the word Gentile to be found. Why in the world would a Latin word, gentilis, be found in a Hebrew or Greek manuscript?

It wasn't. Not until Jerome translated the original languages into Latin do we find the Latin word Gentile, which, btw does not mean "non-jew" as the Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers would have others believe.

But it does mean people of the same race or gens. A related Latin word, genea, is where we get the word genealogy. You know what genealogy means, don't you?

And yet, everywhere one goes - we find this definition: "a Gentile is a "non-jew."

Even jewwikipedia gets it right if you put in the correct search words: "Latin Gentile meaning"

The term Gentile (from Latin gentilis, by the French "gentil", female: "gentille", meaning of or belonging to a clan or tribe) refers to non-Israelite peoples or nations in English translations of the Bible.

Latin and subsequently English translators selectively used the term gentiles when the context for the base term "peoples" or "nations", Hebrew, גוי (goy) and נכרי (nokhri) in the Hebrew Bible and the Greek word ἔθνη (éthnē) in the New Testament, indicated non-Israelite peoples or nations. The term gentiles is derived from Latin, used for contextual translation, and not an original Hebrew or Greek word from the Bible.

And yet we have Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers repeating this lie over and over - which is what the jews have done for centuries - lie.

Their lies that get repeated ad naseum without being challenged is why most people including the Judeo-Zionist-Christendumbers believe the word Gentile means non-jewish.